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Free Radiography Practice Test

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10 Free Radiography Practice Questions

  1. If the patient exhibits cardiac or respiratory arrest while in the radiographer’s care, the radiographer should:

    1. A, B, and C
    2. Signal for an AED
    3. Assess patient respiration
    4. Assess patient circulation
    Show Answer & Explanation

    Correct answer: A, B, and C

    In as short as 3 to 5 minutes, deoxygenation can cause irreversible brain damage. It is essential the radiographer be skilled in CPR/BLS techniques while working in the healthcare setting. A patient who is in respiratory or cardiac arrest should be assessed for a clear airway, breathing, and adequate circulation. A single rescuer should signal for help and an AED. An adult patient requires 80 to 100 compressions per minute for a single rescuer technique, with 2 ventilations for every 30 compressions.

  2. The patient’s chart can serve as a method of communication between multiple healthcare providers. A radiographer would expect to find all of the following within a patient’s chart, except:

    1. The patient’s gender identity
    2. Consent forms
    3. Therapeutic reports
    4. Patient identifying information
    Show Answer & Explanation

    Correct answer: The patient’s gender identity

    Communication is a key aspect of healthcare, and a fluid communication and trade off between healthcare personnel allows for the patient to receive a high level of patient care. A patient chart or electronic health record can serve as a method of communication between multiple healthcare providers and may include information such as a patient’s medical history including recent lab work or medical imaging examinations, identifying patient information, therapeutic and diagnostic reports, and consent forms. A patient’s assigned (biologic) sex would fall under the scope of patient identifying information; personal sense of gender identity differs from assigned (biologic) sex.

  3. The radiographer can ensure patient understanding by:

    1. A and B
    2. Explaining the procedure and patient expectations
    3. Permitting the patient to ask questions and responding to patient inquiries
    4. Asking the patient to verify their requisition
    Show Answer & Explanation

    Correct answer: A and B

    While asking the patient to verify their requisition will allow the patient to read the name of the examination ordered by their provider and ensure that their identifying information is correct, this would not ensure patient understanding of the nature of the examination. It is the responsibility of the technologist to thoroughly explain what the procedure entails and the patient expectations which must be followed to carry out the examination. The technologist should also permit the patient to ask questions for clarification and respond to any patient inquiries.

  4. Which of the following contributes to the acceleration of electrons?

    1. High potential difference between the cathode and anode
    2. Magnetic properties of the target material
    3. Rotating anode component
    4. Stationary anode component
    Show Answer & Explanation

    Correct answer: High potential difference between the cathode and anode

    A focused electron beam travels from the cathode toward the anode. Electrons accelerate toward the anode end of the tube as a result of the high potential difference between the cathode and the anode. A rotating versus stationary anode would not contribute to the acceleration of electrons, but rather, the dissipation of heat.

  5. Atoms with the same mass number and atomic number are called:

    1. Isomers
    2. Isotones
    3. Isobars
    4. Isotopes
    Show Answer & Explanation

    Correct answer: Isomers

    Isomers are atoms that have the same mass and atomic number. Atoms with the same atomic number, or number of protons, but distinct mass numbers are called isotopes. As a result, the number of neutrons in them varies. Isobars are groups of atoms with the same mass number but distinct atomic numbers. Isotones are atoms with distinct atomic numbers but the same neutron number.

  6. What is the annual whole-body EfD limit advised by the NCRP for those who are occupationally exposed?

    1. 50 mSv
    2. 0.5 mSv
    3. 5 mSv
    4. 120 mSv
    Show Answer & Explanation

    Correct answer: 50 mSv

    Effective dose is calculated for the entire body and is expressed in millisieverts (mSv). The NCRP recommends 50 mSv (5 rem) as the yearly whole body effective dose (EfD) limit for individuals who are occupationally exposed to radiation. 

  7. A modification in SID triggers an adjustment in the fluoroscopic automatic brightness control (ABC) feature. Which of these statements is true as SID decreases?

    1. The ABC would decrease milliamperage to compensate for an increase in X-ray photon intensity at the image intensifier
    2. As SID decreases, intensity of the x-ray photons at the image intensifier's input phosphor increases
    3. The ABC ensures constant brightness and corrects for variations in X-ray beam attenuation
    4. A, B, and C
    Show Answer & Explanation

    Correct answer: A, B, and C

    As SID is decreased, the intensity of the x-ray photons at the image intensifier's input phosphor increases, stimulating the automatic brightness control (ABC) to decrease the milliamperage and thereby decreasing patient dose. The ABC ensures constant brightness and contrast of the output screen image by correcting for variations in x-ray beam attenuation with adjustments in kilovoltage and/or milliamperage.

  8. If all other exposure factors remain constant as kVp rises, what will happen to radiographic contrast and density?

    1. Contrast and density will increase
    2. Contrast will increase and density will decrease
    3. Contrast will decrease, and density will increase
    4. Contrast and density will decrease
    Show Answer & Explanation

    Correct answer: Contrast will decrease, and density will increase

    An increase in kVp will result in a reduction in radiographic contrast and an increase in radiographic density, assuming that all other exposure variables stay the same. There is an inverse relationship between kVp and contrast and a direct relationship between kVp and density.

  9. In a diagnostic radiology setting, which test would expose a patient to the highest degree of acute radiation exposure?

    1. AP lumbar spine radiograph
    2. Voiding cystourethrogram
    3. Rhese and Haas cranial projecions
    4. Scoliosis series
    Show Answer & Explanation

    Correct answer: Voiding cystourethrogram

    The greatest cause of acute radiation exposure for patients in the diagnostic radiology setting is fluoroscopy.

  10. Which test can identify regions where there is inadequate film-screen contact?

    1. Wire mesh test
    2. Half-value layer test
    3. Light-beam alignment test
    4. Precision photometer test
    Show Answer & Explanation

    Correct answer: Wire mesh test

    The wire mesh test is one test that can be conducted to identify areas where there is insufficient film-screen contact. In locations where there is inadequate contact between the film and the screen, the radiograph's recorded detail decreases and appears as blurred regions on the film.

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